The reason why it is lazy market, but still act as bullish in Mid-Europe.
I do estimate we approch there at some stage at Eastern 2012.
(Chart is Zoomed Out to present entire impulse).
Why it cannot be allready IV wave where I marked the A wave and do 1-2 in here to be ready to drop potential fifth wave impulse for it while IV wave left it for 50% RET ?
Because A wave was internally impulse it cannot be IV wave - which is the same case with all DAX equities.
For the same reason it also creates for it bullish alternate as Waves 1 and 2.