The reason why it is lazy market, but still act as bullish in Mid-Europe.

I do estimate we approch there at some stage at Eastern 2012. 

(Chart is Zoomed Out to present entire impulse).

Why it cannot be allready IV wave where I marked the A wave and do 1-2 in here to be ready to drop potential fifth wave impulse for it while IV wave left it for 50% RET ?

Because A wave was internally impulse it cannot be IV wave - which is the same case with all DAX equities. 

For the same reason it also creates for it bullish alternate as Waves 1 and 2.